I am a law abiding British citizen - thusly - when a British Court of Law rules that Mark Duggan did not have a gun at the time of his killing it is my duty as, "British citizen", to believe that "he did not have a gun".
As a law abiding British citizens I question:
1. If "Mark Duggan did not have a gun at the time of his killing" why was he shot...?
2. If "Mark Duggan did not have a gun at the time of his killing" - how did the same British Court of Law rule that Mark Duggan was "Lawfully killed"...?
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